Why the Medieval Jews Were Prosecuted in England and Elsewhere


I think what’s missing is the following causes:

  • (a) The interest rate jews charged (300%)
  • (b) Specializing in tax collection and high-interest debt to pay taxes
  • (c) the profitability of driving people into debt, seizing their assets, and reselling them to cover the debt, and more.
  • (d) Thus the prohibition on Jews owning property, thereby preventing the malincentive of baiting into hazard.
  • (e) and to limit jews to professions to prevent the use of credit available to jews to compete with and undermine the working classes.
  • (f) Specializing in selling loan sharking, gambling, alcohol, prostitution, on credit that baited people into hazard.
  • (g) jewish specialization in enslaving and the slave trade in european peoples

Now compare that to how we view the IRS, the financial sector, big-box companies, offshoring, and decadence today.

There isn’t any difference between then and now.  Humans are agitated by financial predation.

What was the cause of the difference? The ancient prohibition on ‘baiting into hazard’ that Europeans take for granted in their pre-Christian and Christian moral intuitions and our laws. The Europeans are a landed, producing, people that must use the full set of classes to hold territory and form institutions both informal and formal. The jews are a diasporic people who do not need to create their own defense, state, institutions, commons, using all three classes, and as such can privatize into their subculture the savings of not producing those commons. And furthermore they don’t have ethical prohibitions on ‘capturing’ those commons by means that the Europeans would (and do) consider unethical, immoral, seditious, and treasonous. This difference in responsibility for the costs of the commons is the ancient difference between Jewish and European ethics. It’s a difference that remains today.
If you don’t know technological, economic, and legal history you don’t know history. You know a fairy tale. 😉

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